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NEW QUESTION # 60
Which of the following has been implemented when a host-based firewall on a legacy Linux system allows connections from only specific internal IP addresses?
- A. Compensating control
- B. Network segmentation
- C. SNMP traps
- D. Transfer of risk
Answer: A
Explanation:
A compensating control is a security measure that is implemented to mitigate the risk of a vulnerability or a weakness that cannot be resolved by the primary control. A compensating control does not prevent or eliminate the vulnerability or weakness, but it can reduce the likelihood or impact of an attack. A host-based firewall on a legacy Linux system that allows connections from only specific internal IP addresses is an example of a compensating control, as it can limit the exposure of the system to potential threats from external or unauthorized sources. A host-based firewall is a software application that monitors and filters the incoming and outgoing network traffic on a single host, based on a set of rules or policies. A legacy Linux system is an older version of the Linux operating system that may not be compatible with the latest security updates or patches, and may have known vulnerabilities or weaknesses that could be exploited by attackers. References = Security Controls - SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 5.1, Security Controls - CompTIA Security+ SY0-501 - 5.7, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 5, page 240. CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 5.1, page 18.
NEW QUESTION # 61
An analyst is evaluating the implementation of Zero Trust principles within the data plane. Which of the following would be most relevant for the analyst to evaluate?
- A. Secured zones
- B. Adaptive identity
- C. Threat scope reduction
- D. Subject role
Answer: A
Explanation:
Secured zones are a key component of the Zero Trust data plane, which is the layer where data is stored, processed, and transmitted. Secured zones are logical or physical segments of the network that isolate data and resources based on their sensitivity and risk. Secured zones enforce granular policies and controls to prevent unauthorized access and lateral movement within the network1.
References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701, 7th Edition, Chapter 5, page 255.
NEW QUESTION # 62
A client asked a security company to provide a document outlining the project, the cost, and the completion time frame. Which of the following documents should the company provide to the client?
- A. SLA
- B. MSA
- C. SOW
- D. BPA
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
An ISOW is a document that outlines the project, the cost, and the completion time frame for a security company to provide a service to a client. ISOW stands for Information Security Operations Work, and it is a type of contract that specifies the scope, deliverables, milestones, and payment terms of a security project. An ISOW is usually used for one-time or short-term projects that have a clear and defined objective and outcome.
For example, an ISOW can be used for a security assessment, a penetration test, a security audit, or a security training.
The other options are not correct because they are not documents that outline the project, the cost, and the completion time frame for a security company to provide a service to a client. A MSA is a master service agreement, which is a type of contract that establishes the general terms and conditions for a long-term or ongoing relationshipbetween a security company and a client. A MSA does not specify the details of each individual project, but rather sets the framework for future projects that will be governed by separate statements of work (SOWs). A SLA is a service level agreement, which is a type of contract that defines the quality and performance standards for a security service provided by a security company to a client. A SLA usually includes the metrics, targets, responsibilities, and penalties for measuring and ensuring the service level. A BPA is a business partnership agreement, which is a type of contract that establishes the roles and expectations for a strategic alliance between two or more security companies that collaborate to provide a joint service to a client. A BPA usually covers the objectives, benefits, risks, and obligations of the partnership. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 8: Governance, Risk, and Compliance, page 387. Professor Messer's CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 8.2:
Compliance and Controls, video: Contracts and Agreements (5:12).
NEW QUESTION # 63
Which of the following threat actors is the most likely to be hired by a foreign government to attack critical systems located in other countries?
- A. Organized crime
- B. Whistleblower
- C. Hacktivist
- D. Unskilled attacker
Answer: A
Explanation:
Organized crime is a type of threat actor that is motivated by financial gain and often operates across national borders. Organized crime groups may be hired by foreign governments to conduct cyberattacks on critical systems located in other countries, such as power grids, military networks, or financial institutions. Organized crime groups have the resources, skills, and connections to carry out sophisticated and persistent attacks that can cause significant damage and disruption12. References = 1: Threat Actors - CompTIA Security+ SY0-701
- 2.1 2: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide
NEW QUESTION # 64
An enterprise is trying to limit outbound DNS traffic originating from its internal network. Outbound DNS requests will only be allowed from one device with the IP address 10.50.10.25. Which of the following firewall ACLs will accomplish this goal?
- A. Access list outbound permit 10.50.10.25 32 0.0.0.0/0 port 53 Access list outbound deny
0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0/0 port 53 - B. Access list outbound permit 0.0.0.0/0 10.50.10.25 32 port 53 Access list outbound deny 0.0.0.0 0
0.0.0.0/0 port 53 - C. Access list outbound permit 0.0.0.0 0 0.0.0.0/0 port 53 Access list outbound deny 10.50.10.25 32
0.0.0.0/0 port 53 - D. Access list outbound permit 0.0.0.0 0 0.0.0.0/0 port 53 Access list outbound deny 0.0.0.0/0 10.50.10.25
32 port 53
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The correct answer is D because it allows only the device with the IP address 10.50.10.25 to send outbound DNS requests on port 53, and denies all other devices from doing so. The other options are incorrect because they either allow all devices to send outbound DNS requests (A and C), or they allow no devices to send outbound DNS requests (B). References = You can learn more about firewall ACLs and DNS in the following resources:
CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 4: Network Security1 Professor Messer's CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 3.2: Firewall Rules2 TOTAL: CompTIA Security+ Cert (SY0-701) | Udemy, Section 6: Network Security, Lecture 28:
Firewall Rules3
NEW QUESTION # 65
A network manager wants to protect the company's VPN by implementing multifactor authentication that uses:
. Something you know
. Something you have
. Something you are
Which of the following would accomplish the manager's goal?
- A. VPN IP address, company ID, facial structure
- B. Domain name, PKI, GeolP lookup
- C. Company URL, TLS certificate, home address
- D. Password, authentication token, thumbprint
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The correct answer is C. Password, authentication token, thumbprint. This combination of authentication factors satisfies the manager's goal of implementing multifactor authentication that uses something you know, something you have, and something you are.
* Something you know is a type of authentication factor that relies on the user's knowledge of a secret or personal information, such as a password, a PIN, or a securityquestion. A password is a common example of something you know that can be used to access a VPN12
* Something you have is a type of authentication factor that relies on the user's possession of a physical object or device, such as a smart card, a token, or a smartphone. An authentication token is a common example of something you have that can be used to generate a one-time password (OTP) or a code that can be used to access a VPN12
* Something you are is a type of authentication factor that relies on the user's biometric characteristics, such as a fingerprint, a face, or an iris. A thumbprint is a common example of something you are that can be used to scan and verify the user's identity to access a VPN12 References:
1: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 4: Identity and Access Management, page 177 2: CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701, 7th Edition, Chapter 4:
Identity and Access Management, page 179
NEW QUESTION # 66
A systems administrator wants to prevent users from being able to access data based on their responsibilities.
The administrator also wants to apply the required access structure via a simplified format. Which of the following should the administrator apply to the site recovery resource group?
- A. RBAC
- B. GPO
- C. SAML
- D. ACL
Answer: A
Explanation:
RBAC stands for Role-Based Access Control, which is a method of restricting access to data and resources based on the roles or responsibilities of users. RBAC simplifies the management of permissions by assigning roles to users and granting access rights to roles, rather than to individual users. RBAC can help enforce the principle of least privilege and reduce the risk of unauthorized access or data leakage. The other options are not as suitable for the scenario as RBAC, as they either do not prevent access based on responsibilities, or do not apply a simplified format. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 133 1
NEW QUESTION # 67
Which of the following enables the use of an input field to run commands that can view or manipulate data?
- A. SQL injection
- B. Cross-site scripting
- C. Buffer overflow
- D. Side loading
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
= SQL injection is a type of attack that enables the use of an input field to run commands that can view or manipulate data in a database. SQL stands for Structured Query Language, which is a language used to communicate with databases. By injecting malicious SQL statements into an input field, an attacker can bypass authentication, access sensitive information, modify or delete data, or execute commands on the server.
SQL injection is one of the most common and dangerous web application
vulnerabilities. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 5, page 195. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 1.1, page
8.
NEW QUESTION # 68
Which of the following threat actors is the most likely to be hired by a foreign government to attack critical systems located in other countries?
- A. Organized crime
- B. Whistleblower
- C. Hacktivist
- D. Unskilled attacker
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Organized crime is a type of threat actor that is motivated by financial gain and often operates across national borders. Organized crime groups may be hired by foreign governments to conduct cyberattacks on critical systems located in other countries, such as power grids, military networks, or financial institutions. Organized crime groups have the resources, skills, and connections to carry out sophisticated and persistent attacks that can cause significant damage and disruption12. References = 1: Threat Actors - CompTIA Security+ SY0-701
- 2.1 2: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide
NEW QUESTION # 69
An administrator discovers that some files on a database server were recently encrypted. The administrator sees from the security logs that the data was last accessed by a domain user. Which of the following best describes the type of attack that occurred?
- A. Watering-hole
- B. Social engineering
- C. Insider threat
- D. Unauthorized attacker
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
An insider threat is a type of attack that originates from someone who has legitimate access to an organization's network, systems, or data. In this case, the domain user who encrypted the files on the database server is an example of an insider threat, as they abused their access privileges to cause harm to the organization. Insider threats can be motivated by various factors, such as financial gain, revenge, espionage, or sabotage.
References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 1: General Security Concepts, page 251. CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701, 7th Edition, Chapter 1: General Security Concepts, page 252.
NEW QUESTION # 70
Which of the following methods to secure credit card data is best to use when a requirement is to see only the last four numbers on a credit card?
- A. Masking
- B. Tokenization
- C. Encryption
- D. Hashing
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Masking is a method to secure credit card data that involves replacing some or all of the digits with symbols, such as asterisks, dashes, or Xs, while leaving some of the original digits visible. Masking is best to use when a requirement is to see only the last four numbers on a credit card, as it can prevent unauthorized access to the full card number, while still allowing identification and verification of the cardholder. Masking does not alter the original data, unlike encryption, hashing, or tokenization, which use algorithms to transform the data into different formats.
References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 2: Compliance and Operational Security, page 721. CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701, 7th Edition, Chapter 2:
Compliance and Operational Security, page 722.
NEW QUESTION # 71
Which of the following best practices gives administrators a set period to perform changes to an operational system to ensure availability and minimize business impacts?
- A. Scheduled downtime
- B. Impact analysis
- C. Change management boards
- D. Backout plan
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Scheduled downtime is a planned period of time when a system or service is unavailable for maintenance, updates, upgrades, or other changes. Scheduled downtime gives administrators a set period to perform changes to an operational system without disrupting the normal business operations or affecting the availability of the system or service. Scheduled downtime also allows administrators to inform the users and stakeholders about the expected duration and impact of the changes. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 12: Security Operations and Administration, page 579 1
NEW QUESTION # 72
Select the appropriate attack and remediation from each drop-down list to label the corresponding attack with its remediation.
INSTRUCTIONS
Not all attacks and remediation actions will be used.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Answer:
Explanation:
Explanation:
Web serverBotnetEnable DDoS protectionUserRATImplement a host-based IPSDatabase server WormChange the default application passwordExecutiveKeyloggerDisable vulnerable servicesApplication BackdoorImplement 2FA using push notification A screenshot of a computer program Description automatically generated with low confidence
NEW QUESTION # 73
Which of the following threat actors is the most likely to use large financial resources to attack critical systems located in other countries?
- A. Insider
- B. Hacktivist
- C. Unskilled attacker
- D. Nation-state
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
A nation-state is a threat actor that is sponsored by a government or a political entity to conduct cyberattacks against other countries or organizations. Nation-states have large financial resources, advanced technical skills, and strategic objectives that may target critical systems such as military, energy, or infrastructure. Nation-states are often motivated by espionage, sabotage, or warfare12. References = 1:
CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 542: Threat Actors - CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 - 2.1, video by Professor Messer.
NEW QUESTION # 74
An employee receives a text message that appears to have been sent by the payroll department and is asking for credential verification. Which of the following social engineering techniques are being attempted? (Choose two.)
- A. Typosquatting
- B. Vishing
- C. Smishing
- D. Impersonation
- E. Phishing
- F. Misinformation
Answer: C,E
Explanation:
Explanation
Smishing is a type of social engineering technique that uses text messages (SMS) to trick victims into revealing sensitive information, clicking malicious links, or downloading malware. Smishing messages often appear to come from legitimate sources, such as banks, government agencies, or service providers, and use urgent or threatening language to persuade the recipients to take action12. In this scenario, the text message that claims to be from the payroll department is an example of smishing.
Impersonation is a type of social engineering technique that involves pretending to be someone else, such as an authority figure, a trusted person, or a colleague, to gain the trust or cooperation of the target. Impersonation can be done through various channels, such as phone calls, emails, text messages, or in-person visits, and can be used to obtain information, access, or money from the victim34. In this scenario, the text message that pretends to be from the payroll department is an example of impersonation.
A: Typosquatting is a type of cyberattack that involves registering domain names that are similar to popular or well-known websites, but with intentional spelling errors or different extensions. Typosquatting aims to exploit the common mistakes that users make when typing web addresses, and redirect them to malicious or fraudulent sites that may steal their information, install malware, or display ads56. Typosquatting is not related to text messages or credential verification.
B: Phishing is a type of social engineering technique that uses fraudulent emails to trick recipients into revealing sensitive information, clicking malicious links, or downloading malware. Phishing emails often mimic the appearance and tone of legitimate organizations, such as banks, retailers, or service providers, and use deceptive or urgent language to persuade the recipients to take action78. Phishing is not related to text messages or credential verification.
D: Vishing is a type of social engineering technique that uses voice calls to trick victims into revealing sensitive information, such as passwords, credit card numbers, or bank account details. Vishing calls often appear to come from legitimate sources, such as law enforcement, government agencies, or technical support, and use scare tactics or false promises to persuade the recipients to comply9 . Vishing is not related to text messages or credential verification.
F: Misinformation is a type of social engineering technique that involves spreading false or misleading information to influence the beliefs, opinions, or actions of the target. Misinformation can be used to manipulate public perception, create confusion, damage reputation, or promote an agenda . Misinformation is not related to text messages or credential verification.
References = 1: What is Smishing? | Definition and Examples | Kaspersky 2: Smishing - Wikipedia 3:
Impersonation Attacks: What Are They and How Do You Protect Against Them? 4: Impersonation - Wikipedia 5: What is Typosquatting? | Definition and Examples | Kaspersky 6: Typosquatting - Wikipedia 7: What is Phishing? | Definition and Examples | Kaspersky 8: Phishing - Wikipedia 9: What is Vishing? | Definition and Examples | Kaspersky : Vishing - Wikipedia : What is Misinformation? | Definition and Examples | Britannica : Misinformation - Wikipedia
NEW QUESTION # 75
A software development manager wants to ensure the authenticity of the code created by the company. Which of the following options is themostappropriate?
- A. Performing code signing on company-developed software
- B. Testing input validation on the user input fields
- C. Ensuring secure cookies are use
- D. Performing static code analysis on the software
Answer: A
Explanation:
Code signing is a technique that uses cryptography to verify the authenticity and integrity of the code created by the company. Code signing involves applying a digital signature to the code using a private key that only the company possesses. The digital signature can be verified by anyone who has the corresponding public key, which can be distributed through a trusted certificate authority. Code signing can prevent unauthorized modifications, tampering, or malware injection into the code, and it can also assure the users that the code is from a legitimate source. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 2, page 74. CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 3.2, page 11. Application Security - SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 3.2
NEW QUESTION # 76
A Chief Information Security Officer wants to monitor the company's servers for SQLi attacks and allow for comprehensive investigations if an attack occurs. The company uses SSL decryption to allow traffic monitoring. Which of the following strategies would best accomplish this goal?
- A. Enabling full packet capture for traffic entering and exiting the servers
- B. Deploying network traffic sensors on the same subnet as the servers
- C. Logging endpoint and OS-specific security logs
- D. Logging all NetFlow traffic into a SIEM
Answer: A
Explanation:
Full packet capture is a technique that records all network traffic passing through a device, such as a router or firewall. It allows for detailed analysis and investigation of network events, such as SQLi attacks, by providing the complete content and context of the packets. Full packet capture can help identify the source, destination, payload, and timing of an SQLi attack, as well as the impact on the server and database. Logging NetFlow traffic, network traffic sensors, and endpoint and OS-specific security logs can provide some information about network activity, but they do not capture the full content of the packets, which may limit the scope and depth of the investigation. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page
372-373
NEW QUESTION # 77
After a security awareness training session, a user called the IT help desk and reported a suspicious call. The suspicious caller stated that the Chief Financial Officer wanted credit card information in order to close an invoice. Which of the following topics did the user recognize from the training?
- A. Insider threat
- B. Email phishing
- C. Executive whaling
- D. Social engineering
Answer: D
Explanation:
Social engineering is the practice of manipulating people into performing actions or divulging confidential information, often by impersonating someone else or creating a sense of urgency or trust. The suspicious caller in this scenario was trying to use social engineering to trick the user into giving away credit card information by pretending to be the CFO and asking for a payment. The user recognized this as a potential scam and reported it to the IT help desk. The other topics are not relevant to this situation. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 19 1
NEW QUESTION # 78
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